22. 22. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? a. The Avian Influenza Virus (AIV) strains containing H5 and H7 are frequently associated with high mortality. b. Al virus strains can be isolated in embryonated chicken eggs by allantoic cavity route and in chicken kidney cell culture. c. Al virus is an RNA virus belonging to family Orthomyxoviridae. d. Chickens act as a 'mixing vessel' where various strains of influenza virus can come together, undergo reassortment resulting in generation of new strains.

a and b only b and d only a, b and c only b, c and d only

23. 23. The type of immunity induced by vaccination is

Natural active immunity Artificial active immunity Artificial passive immunity Natural passive immunity

24. 24. Leptospirosis causes abortion in animals and organism can be seen in:

Saliva of affected animal Sputum of affected animal Faeces of affected animal Urine of affected animal

25. 25. Enterotoxaemia is caused by bacteria named:

Clostridium perfringens Clostridium botulinum Enterobacter toxaem Enterobacter perfringens

26. 26. Multivalent vaccine in dogs contains vaccine against:

Canine distemper ICH Canine parvo virus infection All of the above

27. Vaccination against FMD should be undertaken:

Once every year Twice every year Thrice every year Fourth time every year

28. 28. Ringworm infection is caused by invasion of keratinized epithelial cells by:

Ectoparasites Fungus Ticks Round worm

29. 29. Bovine Ephemeral Fever is commonly observed during monsoon season in animals and is also known as:

Ephemerosis Ephemeritis Bovine ephemeritis Three day sickness

30. 30. While handling a dog exhibiting nervous signs and excessive salivation, a veterinarian should take precautionary measures against:

Rabies Pseudo-rabies Meningitis Neuritis

31. 31. Viruses with icosahedral symmetry have how many corners?

20 30 12 Nil

32. 32. Viruses are infectious agents that have:

DNA and RNA and proteins DNA and RNA or proteins DNA or RNA and proteins DNA or RNA or proteins

33. 33. Morphology of Rotavirus is:

Brick shaped Bullet shaped Star shaped Wheel shaped

34. 34.Viruses with icosahedra symmetry have how many faces?

20 12 6 None

35. 35. Morphological units of capsid is called:

Capsomere Primer Peplomer All of the above

36. 36. Genome of polio virus is:

dsDNA Positive sense ssRNA Segmented dsRNA None of the above

37. 37. Naked viruses lack:

Envelope Capsid Genome None of the above

38. 38. Re-assortment occurs in:

Polio virus Rabies virus Rota virus None of the above

39. 39. Genome of rabies virus is:

dsDNA Positive sense ssRNA Segmented dsRNA None of the above

40. 40. Prions contain one of the following as their genome:

ssRNA dsRNA dsDNA None of the above

41. Hepatic lobule is

Structural unit Functional unit Secretory unit None of the above

42. 42. The following organism has been internationally accepted as the most suitable bacterial indicators for detecting recent sewage pollution of water:

Enterococcus faecalis Clostridium perfringens Escherichia coli All of the above

43. 43. Infections which spread through excreta include:

Salmonella Mycobacterium paratuberculosis Enteroviruses All of the above

44. 44. Microsomal oxidative enzyme includes:

Aldehyde dehydrogenase Xanthine oxidase Monoamine oxidase None of the above

45. 45. Various types of G-proteins are after the type of:

a-subunit ẞ-subunit y-subunit All of the above

46. 46. ELISA rest essentially required which of the following?

Antigen, antibody and conjugate Antigen, antibody, substrate and ELISA plate Antigen, antibody, conjugate, substrate and ELISA plate Antigen, antibody and ELISA plate

47. Blood is added in blood medium agar at the following concentration

5-10% 15% 20% 2%

48. 48. The test used for diagnosis of Equine infectious anemia is:

Coombs test Strauss test Casoni's test Coggins test

49. 49. The acquisition of DNA molecule by bacterial cells from environment is called:

Transformation Transduction Conjugation None of these

50. Bacteria that grow at 50-55° C are known as:

Psychrophiles Mesophiles Thermophiles Halophiles

51. 51. The first bacterial genome sequenced was of:

Salmonella typimurium Bacillus anthracis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus influenza

52. 52. Medusa head colonies are characteristics features of:

Rickettsia spp. Clostridium botulinum Bacillus anthracis Clostridium tetani

53. 53. Blue Tongue in sheep is caused by

Herpes virus Birna virus Picorna virus Orbi virus

54. 54. Tuberculin test is based on

Delayed hypersensitivity Arthus reaction Anaphylactic reaction Type III hypersensitivity

55. 55. Which is the most common rapid and sensitive diagnostic test for Rabies?

ELISA Direct Fluorescent Assay Dot blot immunoassay Negri body detection

56. 56. The general steps in the viral multiplication cycle are:

Attachment, penetration, uncoating. replication, maturation and release Endocytosis, penetration, replication, assembly and lysis Attachment, uncoating, replication, assembly and budding Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation and exocytosis

57. 57. Virus having RNA dependent DNA polymerase:

Retrovirus Reovirus Rabies virus Rubella virus

58. 58. Ribotyping is extensively used for identifying pathogens:

Bacteria Fungus Virus Parasites

59. 59. Which of the following is not an immuno-diagnostic test?

PCR HA & HI ELISA Serum plate agglutination test

60. 60. The antibody that is first formed after infection is an:

IgG IgM IgD IgE

61. 61. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:

Hybridoma technology Biotechnology Fermentation Technology None of these

62. 62. Antibody present in colostrum is:

IgG IgA IgM IgE

63. 63. Anthrax vaccine is prepared by:

An Attenuated bacilli Killing the bacilli Live bacilli None of these

64. Examples for cell-mediated immunity are

Tuberculin type Contact dermatitis Granulomatous All of these

65. 65. Which antibody class is majorly involved in mucosal immunity

IgE IgD IgA IgM

66. 66. Protective mechanisms used by Staphylococcus bacteria to survive in the host may be:

Capsule M protein Various enzymes All of these

67. 67. Equine glanders is caused by:

Burkholderia mallei Burkholderia pseudomallei Burkoldera capaciae Burkholderia tialendesis

68. 68. The capacity of an agent to cause disease in a susceptible host defines its:

Virulence Pathogenicity Infectivity Aggressiveness

69. 69. Equine herpes virus infection is also termed as:

Equine abortion virus Equine arteritis Equine rhinopneumonitis None of these

70. 70. The disease caused by Parvovirus causes in cats?

Panleukopenia Rhinotracheitis Infectious peritonitis Infectious anaemia

71. 71. Tetrathionate broth is an example for:

Enriched media Enrichment media Sugar media Indicator media

72. 72. Lumpy skin diseaes virus belongs to the genus:

Leporipoxvirus Orthopoxvirus Suipoxvirus Capripoxvirus

73. 73. Type-l hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:

Ig G Ig E lg M Ig D

74. 74. Immunoglobulin utilised during immune defense against protozoan parasites, helminths and Fasciola:

IgM IgE IgA IgD

75. 75. Complex symmetry occurs in:

Bacteriophage TMV Influenza virus Pox Virus

76. 76. Type of lenses employed in electron microscope:

Glass Quartz Optic fiber Electromagnetic fields

77. 77. Latency is a typical feature of:

Adenoviridae Herpesviridae Paramyxoviridae Circoviridae

78. 78. Father of microbiology:

Anton Von Leuwenhoek Edward Jenner Peter Medawar Robert Koch

79. 79. Antiviral activity of interferons is because it inhibits:

Attachment Transcription Translation Elongation

80. 80. One of the following is NOT a virulence factor of bacteria:

Capsule Fimbriae Enzymes Cilia

81. 81. CAMP test is employed for differentiation of:

Staphylococcus species Streptococcus species Corynebacterium species Serratia species

82. 82. . One of the following is NOT a property of bacterial plasmid:

Double stranded Circular Replicates autonomously Essential for survival of bacterium

83. 83. Viral genome are made up of:

RNA only DNA only Either RNA or DNA but never both Both RNA and DNA

84. 84. McFadyan reaction is employed for diagnosis of:

Anthrax Pasteurellosis Blackquarter Viral diarrhea

85. 85. The most common medium. employed to grow fungi in the laboratory:

Sabouraud agar Blood agar at pH5.6 Nutrient agar at pH7.6 Milk agar

86. 86. Type of vaccine with potential for reversion to virulence:

Killed vaccines Live Vectored vaccines Attenuated vaccines Recombinant vaccines

87. 87. Bacteria that are motile without possessing external flagella:

Vibrios Bacilli Streptococci Spirochetes

88. 88. Unstained Leptospiral organisms can be seen directly under this type of microscope:

Bright field Fluorescent Dark field Electron

89. 89. The major immunoglobulin produced during secondary immune response is

IgG IgA IgD IgM

90. 90. Natural active immunity is acquired through:

Colostrum Vaccines Infection Synthetic antigen

91. 91. The source of complement for CFT is:

Rabbit serum Chicken serum Dog serum Guinea Pig Serum

92. 92. One of the following is a thermo precipitation test employed if diagnosis:

Weil Felix reaction Ascoli's test Anton's reaction Coomb's test

93. 93. Liver fluke damage is the predisposing factor for:

Malignant edema Braxy Gas gangrene Black disease

94. 94. Which one of the following is considered as energy parasite?

Rickettsia Mycoplasma Chlamydia Mycobacteria

95. 95. The simple quantitative test used in the diagnosis of Brucella abortus infection in cattle:

Plate agglutination test Tube agglutination test Coomb's test IHA test

96. 96. The specific regions on antigens, against which immune responses are directed, are called:

Paratopes Epitopes Idiotopes Antitopes

97. 97. Segmented RNA is seen in one of the following viruses:

Influenza virus FMD viruses IBR virus Newcastle Disease virus

98. 98. Name the mycotoxin which is hepatotoxic:

Ochratoxin Trichothecanes Aflatoxins Citrinin

99. 99. Ranikhet vaccination can be done by the following route:

Intra muscular Intra peritoneal Subcutaneous All of the above

100. 100. Robertson cooked meat media is used to culture:

Brucella organism Salmonella organism Proteus organism Clostridial organism

Test Series for ICAR Vet Science (With Lectures)

Completed

Microbiology - Quiz 1